Question #55
This man presented with painful, red lumps in both groins.
Which is the most correct response
| A. the groin pain is probably due to secondary reactive lymphadenitis | |
| B. urgent circumcision is required | |
| C. skin dermatitis is the primary cause | |
| D. balanitis is not the primary condition | |
| E. intracavernous injections for impotence are free of complications |
